Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 09:10
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why are so many young teenage boys misogynistic? Where do they get these attitudes from?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What is a good habit and what is bad one?
You'll usually find your answer there.